Sermon Tone Analysis

*/Ephesians 3:5-6/*

* *

*/Greek Text 3:5b hos nun apekalupsthe tois hagiois apostolois autoi kai prophetais en pneumati,/*

*Translation 3:5b as it has now been revealed to His holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit,*

* *

*hos nun apekalupsthe**, “as it has now been revealed”* is a highly debated phrase.

It is typically taken two ways.

 

1) comparison of degree or 2) comparison of kind

 

If you say this is a comparison of degree (view 1) then there are two ways you could possibly understand this: (a) /Covenant Theology/ say that the *mystery *was partially revealed in the OT but not fully revealed until the NT or (b) /Progressive Dispensationalists/ say it was revealed in the OT but not recognized until the NT.

If you say this is a comparison of kind (view 2) then there is only one way to understand this: (a) /Classic Dispensationalists/ say that the *mystery *was totally unrevealed in the OT.

The Classic Dispensational view that Paul is making a comparison of kind is the best view for at least four reasons.

/First/, the context argues that this *mystery *was totally unrevealed.

For example, in v. 9 Paul says the *mystery *was hidden in God.

It doesn’t say it was partially hidden in God and partially revealed in the OT (which would be required for Covenant Theology).

Nor does it say it was hidden in the OT and just not recognized (which would be required for Progressive Dispensationalism).

Instead it says it was hidden in God.

And God’s mind is inscrutable until He reveals His thoughts to us.

/Second/, the verbs /apokalupto /and /gnorizo /in the prior context of v. 3 refer to something being unveiled and made known.

If something were hidden in God then the only way it could be unveiled and made known is if God reveals it.

/Third/, the adverb /nun /(now) in v. 5 argues that Paul is contrasting the past with the present and this is consistent with Paul’s usage of /nun /in two other mystery passages; Romans 16:25-26 and Col. 1:26.

/Further/, if the heavenly hosts of v. 10 did not know of the mystery in the OT then it is highly unlikely that anyone on earth knew about the mystery.

Therefore, it is reasonable to say that this ‘mystery’ was not known previous to Paul’s generation because it was not revealed.

In fact, we find out in v. 10 that the heavenly hosts learn about the ‘mystery’ from the Church which began on the day of Pentecost.

So, it couldn’t be known before Pentecost.

So, a mystery is something that is totally unrevealed in the OT and is now revealed.

To whom was the mystery first revealed??

             *tois hagiois apostolois autoi kai prophetais en pneumati**, “to His holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit,”*.

We already know from 2:20 who the *holy apostles and prophets *are.

They refer to those men in the NT who held the office of apostle or were prophets.

These two groups were the only men in the NT to receive direct revelation from God.

This fits perfectly with the *mystery *concept as well as the ‘unveiling’ and ‘being made known’ and ‘hidden in God’ concepts in the context.

It is important to note that the revelation of the mystery was not solely given to Paul.

Those who are Pauline Dispensationalists often try to assert that Paul was the only one given this revelation or that he was the first to have received the revelation.

The plurals of *apostle and prophet *show that this is not correct.

Other *apostles and prophets *did receive revelation of the *mystery* although it may have taken some time to think over and understand.

Because Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles he had a great desire to make known this insight to the Gentiles.

It is remarkable that Gentiles no longer have to become Jews but that by believing in Christ they become a part of one new body, neither Jew nor Gentile.

This is truly important for Gentiles to understand.

They don’t have to be circumcised and go through all the ritual of the OT to become fully accepted among Israel (this is the argument of Galatians).

Finally, how was the mystery made known?

Paul tells us he received the revelation of the *mystery…by the Spirit*.

This shows conclusively that the *mystery *could not be known by human study or meditation on the OT Scriptures.

It had to be revealed *by the Spirit*.

Finally we come to the long awaited content of the mystery.

What exactly was totally unknown in the OT and is now made known in the NT era?

This of course is highly debated so it will make things easier if we determine ahead of time what was revealed in the OT about Gentiles.

We know that Gentiles would be blessed (Gen.

12:3; 22:18; 26:4; 28:14).

We know that there could be Gentile inclusion within Israel (Lev.

19:34; Deut.

10:18-19; 1 Kgs.

8:41-43).

We know that Gentiles could be saved because the OT gives evidence of their salvation.

We also know that Gentiles were prophesied to be blessed with Israel (Isa.

2:1-4; 11:10; 49:6; 60:1-3; 61:5-6; Jer.

3:17; Zech.

8:20-23; 14:16-19).

But these prophesies were referring to the future kingdom (cf.

Acts 3:18-20).

What we do not ever find in the OT is the concept of Jew and Gentile in the same body.

This was an entirely new concept in the NT.

Two distinct features of this body are found in 1 Cor.

12:13; (1) that entrance into this body for Jews and Gentiles is the same and (2) that this entrance is by baptism of the Spirit.

Since Spirit baptism began on the day of Pentecost then it follows that these truths were a total mystery in the OT, something unrevealed now revealed to the NT *apostles and prophets* for our benefit and that of the heavenly hosts (3:10).

*                        c.         The Content of the Mystery (3:6)*

 

*/Greek Text 3:6 einai ta ethne sugkleronoma kai sussoma kai summetocha tes epaggelias en Christo Iesou dia tou euaggeliou,/*

*Translation 3:6 **that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body and fellow participants of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel,*

 

            *einai ta ethne sugkleronoma kai sussoma**, “that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body”*.

* *The significant thing about this verse is Paul’s focus on the unity of Jewish and Gentile believers.

To accomplish this emphasis Paul used three adjectives prefixed by /sun-/.

You’ll notice how the NASB translators maintained this by using the word *fellow *each time Paul used one of these adjectives.

We are *fellow heirs, fellow members, and fellow participants*.

This emphasizes unity!

Believing *Gentiles* are *fellow heirs *with believing Jews *and* believing *Gentiles *are *fellow members of the body*.

The *body *here is, of course, the *body *of Christ, that is, the Church (Eph.

1:22-23).

Each individual believer depends on the other members and the whole body depends on Christ for growth and direction.

We are being grown into a holy temple (2:21) and being fitted together to be the place where God dwells in the Spirit (2:22).

Additionally we are…

            *kai summetocha tes epaggelias**, “and fellow participants of the promise”*.

What exactly is *the promise *that Paul has in mind?

Paul mentioned that we were *strangers to the covenants of promise *in 2:12.

There he was referring to the unconditional covenants (Abrahamic, Land, Davidic, and New).

We must then be related to the unconditional covenants of the OT in some way(s).

The ultimate promise that we participate in is receiving “eternal life” *in Christ Jesus through the gospel*.

Since Jesus Christ is the mediator of the New Covenant then we partake of the spiritual aspects of the unconditional promises that are repeated in the NT.

This includes the Messiah, salvation, and enablement of the Holy Spirit.

We know from Galatians that Gentiles are Abraham’s offspring and we are heirs according to promise.

We know from 2 Cor. 3 that believing Jews and Gentiles are both under the spiritual blessings of the new covenant.

We have to be very careful here not to make Gentile believers a part of Israel.

There are very careful distinctions that one must make when trying to understand what applies strictly to Israel and what applies to the Church.

There are basically three different views.

(1) Some take all the promises of the OT covenants allegorically and apply them to the Church in the present day (Roman Catholicism, Covenant Amillennial, and Covenant Postmillennial).

(2) Some believe that the spiritual promises are to be taken literally and the physical promises are to be allegorized.

On what basis can we allegorize some parts of a covenant and take other parts literally?

All aspects of the unconditional covenants will be fulfilled literally.

If they are not then God’s character is at stake.

(3) Some take all aspects of the covenants of promise literally.

However, the only aspects of the covenants of promise that apply to the Church are those repeated in NT contexts related to the Church.

All aspects that are not repeated to the Church are yet to be fulfilled to the nation of Israel at the Second Coming.

This third understanding is the best and takes all of Scripture at face value which is a Dispensational distinction.

There is simply no way we can allegorize Israel’s land promises or the Davidic throne promises and apply them to the Church.

* **en Christo Iesou dia tou euaggeliou**, “in Christ Jesus through the gospel”*.

*In Christ Jesus *gives us the sphere in which Gentiles are *fellow heirs, fellow members, and fellow participants.

*If it wasn’t for Christ Jesus we would still be far off, strangers, aliens, excluded from the privileges of Israel; but now in Christ we who were far off have been brought near by the blood of Christ to the spiritual aspects of the unconditional covenants.

The means by which this was made possible is *through the gospel*.