Sermon Tone Analysis

! Dispensationalism

 

!! Prophecy And The Mystery

* *

*/Mr.

Stam tells us: \\ The supposition that the most important division of the Bible is that between the Old and New Testaments has often been expressed in the statement: "The Old Testament is for the Jews; the New Testament is for us."

/*

*/This is quite incorrect, however.

First of all, the titles Old Testament and New Testament are not accurate designations of the two sections of the Bible which they are supposed to represent.

/*

\\ *I think close examination of the scriptures will prove that they are.*

*1.

The scriptures speak of only two covenants- (Heb.8:6-7).

The first covenant was fallible because it was written on tables of stone, and memorized by a select group to share with a larger group.

(Heb.8:11).

The second was written on the fleshly tables of each heart that was to be a recipient of the covenant.

(Heb.8:10).*

*2.

The first covenant was dependent upon sinful man for its being passed on from generation to generation and was therefore distorted and broken by men many times.

(Heb.8:9).

The second covenant was dependent upon the finished work of Christ at the cross and therefore had no fleshly dependence for its being carried on from generation to generation, rather it was the work of the Holy Spirit.*

*3.

The Old Covenant pointed to a reestablished fellowship with God, and it was affirmed when the High Priest was seen in his duties (Heb.8:3-5)

BUT IT WAS ONLY A TYPE OF THE NEW COVENANT THAT WAS TO COME LATER.

When Christ entered into the heavenly holiest of holies, before the very throne of God in heaven the Old Covenant was fulfilled as he made everlasting intercession for God's people, based on his shed blood.*

*4.

The Old Covenant, being between man and God, was continually broken by man.

The New Covenant, being between God and God, can never be broken.*

*5.

Both covenants promised restored fellowship with God, while the covenant was intact, through the obedience of the first party to God.

Exodus 19:5-6, I Peter 1:2, Heb.5:8.

Adam broke the covenant when he disobeyed God and lost that unity he had with his creator.

Throughout history when God saw fit to bestow upon certain people His Holy Spirit, the covenant remained in effect.

But when He withdrew His Spirit it was continually broken by disobedience due to sin.

The New Covenant, on the other hand, was based, not on God's covenant with sinful man, through Adam, but rather with perfect man in Christ.

It was never broken and was signed and sealed for eternity through the atoning work of Christ on the cross of Calvary.*

*6.

The Old Covenant ran from Adam's sin until Christ, the New Covenant began with Christ and will never end.*

*/ \\ Mr. Stam tells us: \\ The covenant of the law (later called the old covenant, or testament) was not made until 2500 years of human history had elapsed.

"The law was given by Moses" (John 1:17), about 1500 B.C., as recorded in Exodus 19 and 20.

We are told concerning this period of time "from Adam to Moses" that "there [was] no law" (Rom.

5:13,14), i.e., the law had not yet been given.

/*

\\ *According to the Word of God, the books of the law include Gen.- Duet.

Genesis was indeed a book of the law of God.

Moses under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit penned these books and they were read as a part of the law when the law was read.

Mark 2:26.

This law, which was given by Moses, was not just the law to Israel, God's particular people, but also contained the law of God to Adam in Gen Mark 2:16-17.

\\ Romans 5:13,14 does not say that there was no law.

It says "For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed (the Greek word here is "ellegeo" meaning to put on a persons account) when there is no law (In other words, without a law there is no penalty for disobedience) nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that is to come."*

*Paul is telling us in these verses that if there had been no law against sin there would have been no punishment for disobedience, yet we know that there was the punishment, death, SO THERE MUST HAVE BEEN A LAW.*

*/ \\ Mr. Stam tells us: \\ It is a striking fact that the very opening words of the Bible read: "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth."

It does not say that He created the universe, but the heaven and the earth.

This is because He had a purpose concerning the earth quite distinct from His purpose concerning heaven.

/*

\\ *I regret to see Mr. Stam use the Word of God to make doctrinal issues which are not even remotely implied by the passages used.

If we apply this line of reasoning to the opening line of creation we must make the same application to other areas where the same terminology is used.

If we do not do this then the scripture can be made to prove any point, whether true or false, that we want it to prove.

When we apply his method of interpretation to the creation then we will see the following:*

*1.

God has a different plan for the evening and the morning.

Verse Gen.1:5,8,13,19,23,31, because he didn't just say this was the first, second, third, fourth, fifth, or sixth day.*

*2.

He has a different plan for the grass and the herb, (Gen.1:12) because he didn't just say plant.*

*3.

He has a different plan for the whales than the other creatures of the sea (Gen.1:21) because he didn't just say sea creatures.

We could go on but the most startling of all is that he has a separate eternal plan for males and females (Gen.1:27) because He didn't just say people.*

*Following this line of reasoning we could go into perhaps different plans of salvation for males and females, maybe even different heavens.

The implication of this verse to the believer is that God is the creator of all things whether in heaven or in earth.

In order to highlight the scriptural basis of his doctrinal stand Mr. Stam has found it necessary to add the words /"This is because He has a purpose concerning the earth quite distinct from His purpose concerning heaven."/ to the scripture.*

*This may seem like a harmless statement to the casual reader but, unfortunately many of the errors in theology today are caused by this mode of interpretation, where someone states as Biblical truth what the Word of God never implies.*

*/ \\ Mr. Stam tells us: \\ Concerning the kingdom on earth Zacharias said: /*

*/"Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for He hath visited and redeemed His people, /*

*/"And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of His servant David; /*

*/"AS HE SPAKE BY THE MOUTH OF HIS HOLY PROPHETS, WHICH HAVE BEEN SINCE THE WORLD BEGAN" (Luke 1:68-70).

/*

\\ *Where in this scripture does it say that Zacharias was speaking concerning the kingdom on earth as opposed to a heavenly kingdom?

Or where does the Bible anywhere state that the Jews are God's earthly kingdom and the church is God's heavenly kingdom?

NOWHERE*

*Again we see the same problem as in the previous quotation.

The author desires to see two kingdoms in the scripture so he adds his own wisdom to the Word of God.

The only time that I see earthly and heavenly mentioned in contrast in the scriptures is when we are told that the earthly is of the sin nature and heavenly is pertaining to the nature of Christ.

(John 3:31, II Cor.5: 1-2; Ja. 3:15; John 3:12; Phil.3:18-20.*

*/ \\ Mr. Stam tells us: \\ Again at Pentecost, Peter, speaking of the absence of Christ and of the signs of His return, said: "Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, WHICH GOD HATH SPOKEN BY THE MOUTH OF ALL HIS HOLY PROPHETS SINCE THE WORLD BEGAN."

"YEA, AND ALL THE PROPHETS FROM SAMUEL AND THOSE THAT FOLLOW AFTER, AS MANY AS HAVE SPOKEN, HAVE LIKEWISE FORETOLD OF THESE DAYS" (Acts 3:21,24).

But concerning the body of Christ, with its heavenly calling and position, not one word is to be found in the pages of prophecy.

Indeed, God kept this great purpose a secret until He was ready to bring the body itself into being, and then He revealed it first to the Apostle Paul.

The apostle says of this great purpose, that it was: "KEPT SECRET SINCE THE WORLD BEGAN" (Rom.

16:2.5).

"A MYSTERY . . .

ORDAINED BEFORE THE WORLD UNTO OUR GLORY" (I Cor.

2:7).

"IN OTHER AGES... NOT MADE KNOWN" (Eph.

3:5).

"FROM THE BEGINNING OF THE WORLD HID IN GOD" (Eph.

3:9).

"HID FROM AGES AND FROM GENERATIONS" (Col.

1:26).

/*

\\ *As we concentrate on this statement we will first use the verses of scripture he uses and see what they say when quoted in their entirety.*

*Romans 16:25-"Now unto him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, "/now verse 26, /"But is now made manifest, AND BY THE SCRIPTURES OF THE PROPHETS, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all the nations for the obedience of faith."/

True it was a mystery, but a mystery to who? perhaps the gentile nations.

The last part of verse 26 seems to imply this by its wording.

/"Made known to all nations for the obedience of faith"/.

Whoever the apostle is speaking of he makes it quite clear that the pages of prophecy is where we will find this mystery.*

*/I Cor.

2:7 "But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory."/

Again let us put this verse in context of the chapter, who was the mystery that is now revealed hidden from.

Note verse 8, the princes of this world, not the prophets or the Old Testament writers!

See how Paul contrasts this Godly wisdom with the earthly wisdom throughout the entire chapter.

Who does he say is the conveyor of this wisdom?

Vs. 10.

Who conveyed the wisdom to the prophets?

The same Holy Spirit that conveys it to us!*

*/Ephesians 3:5-6 "Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of man, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit that the Gentiles should be fellow heirs of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel."/

What is the mystery mentioned in these verses?

Not the work of Christ and his body but the fact that the Gentile nations would share in the promise of Christ.

And again who is it hidden from?

Not the sons of God but the sons of men.*

*Again in verse 9 He uses the phrase /"And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery"/ as in Romans 16:26 he again emphasizes that now all men not just a select few will know what is the fellowship of the mystery.*

*When we read Col.1:26-27 we see the revelation of two mysteries.*

*1.

It is the knowledge of Christ which would be seen by the Gentiles vs.27 this mystery was hidden from the saints: vs.26.*